Ah, I think I see what you are hung up on.
In newtonian mechanics, the equivalence principle says that any two inertial coordinate frames look "the same". For example, if you have two spaceships heading toward each other, the picture looks "the same" as if you pretend that one spaceship is stationary and the other is moving twice as fast, or vice versa.
This is not true only of geometric relationships, but also for the laws of physics: If you choose to view things in coordinate frame A, and apply the same laws of physics, you will still get the same predicted motion as if you had done the calculation in coordinate frame B. There is no experiment that can tell you which frame is "moving", because you always get the same answer.
With your example of two rotating bodies, it is true that the picture looks geometrically "the same" if we pick a different rotating reference frame. The problem is that the laws of physics do not look "the same" under this transformation. If I choose a coordinate frame where the spinning astronaut is stationary, and I try to predict what will happen using the laws of physics of the original frame, I will get wrong results-- the motion of the yo-yo will look "unphysical" for a stationary system. So when you change between rotating and stationary coordinate frames, the laws of physics change too.
That means I can tell whether I am in an "absolutely rotating" coordinate frame by doing tests to measure the laws of physics (i.e. are there coriolis and centrifugal forces acting on me?), without any reference to some other, external frame.
So the fundamental question is under what circumstances the picture looks "the same". In both cases, geometric relationships are equivalent, but in only one of the cases are the laws of physics also equivalent. The original article lied by saying the laws of physics are the same in the rotating case, and that is simply not true.
Does that make sense?