I think it is also clearly the case that concrete insider knowledge will be considered differently than deductions.
This goes on and on about the meaning of the term:
http://www.investopedia.com/exam-guide/cfa-level-1/ethics-st...
I think it is also clearly the case that concrete insider knowledge will be considered differently than deductions.
This goes on and on about the meaning of the term:
http://www.investopedia.com/exam-guide/cfa-level-1/ethics-st...
Now, I pass on this information to someone. They short the stock based on this information alone. Have I or the person I talked to broken insider trading rules? I'd say no.
I think it would be loudly argued that the person receiving the information was aware of why it was valuable.
Is it illegal for you to act on that information? I should think so, but it will be hard to prove unless you do a unreasonably large trade.
How did a couple of railroad yard workers catch wind of a multibillion-dollar leveraged buyout? The complaint says they suspected something was up when they saw “people dressed in business attire” taking tours of the rail yards. It suggests their curiosity was further piqued by a day-long rail trip the Fortress folks took in a special train car reserved for visitors.
http://dealbook.nytimes.com/2010/10/01/s-e-c-charges-railroa...
http://www.lexology.com/library/detail.aspx?g=84aea8bb-af1b-...
If it is market-moving and Acme lets you share that information then they're violating Reg FD.
If it is market-moving and the person you talked to knows that you weren't supposed to share it, that's insider trading. When does the court say they should have known that you weren't supposed to share the information? When they know that you received a personal benefit for it (or a few other circumstances e.g. they know you agreed to keep it confidential).
This is particularly important because often these cases are about investor relations people rather than janitors. If an investor relations person tells a trader something, they can trade on it. If a trader bribes an investor relations person to tell them something, they can't trade on it. (The law aligns with common sense here IMO). Now, what if an investor relations person tells an intermediary something, and then they tell a trader that thing, and the trader trades on it? The law here is that the trader has to know that the investor relations person was bribed - because otherwise they have no reason to think they're committing a crime.