Like I said, modus operandi matters. If I have to perform another model checking routine (possibly on an infinite state space) to slightly generalize a theorem, then in many cases that means I never really had a useful proof of it in the first place.

Also, Coq's mathematics library is extensive and often closely follows the proofs found in graduate mathematics text books. Last I looked into TLA+, it was squarely focused on algorithms and hardware (not even CS-related mathematics more generally -- specifically algorithms and hardware).

> So you think some people are more familiar with type theory than with undergrad-level set theory (ZF)?

Do I think there exists some population of people who are "more familiar" with type theory than with ZF? Yes, starting, for example, with every researcher whose primary area of study is type theory. In fact, I think that anyone who doesn't honestly believe there are such people must have an extremely low opinion of quite a number of very smart people.

(Also, set theory qua set theory gets really disgusting and kludgey really quickly, and is something that almost no undergraduate (or even phd student) is exposed to these days. The "set theory" you see in a discrete math course kind of barely scrapes definitions. I think most people who posit that "set theory" is nice and simple must've never really dove deem into the actual theory of set theory...)

(Also, most real math these days quickly abstracts away from germanely set theoretic constructions. Mathematicians don't work in ZF. They do not. Most will tell you they do not, if they even know what ZF is. Which a lot won't, because their undergrad discrete math course is probably the last time they saw a truly formal derivation. And the mathematicians who do know what ZF is often can't regurgitate an axiomatization of ZF. If you tell a mathematician that all of math is just set theory, most will chuckle and wink and say "why, yes, yes it is", and hopefully you're in on the joke...)

> I don't see it... I fail to see anything that isn't readily expressible in simple classical logic + temporal logic. Could you explain?

Did you read this dissertation's explanation of why separation logic is important?

To the extent that this observation is remotely reasonable, it's only in the sense that you can code up one logic in another. Which, well, all the world's a TM, as they say...

Anyways, I think the argument over whether type theory is a successful foundations for CS research and practice is already a closed issue. It demonstrably is. So is set theory.