I went hunting for the origins of that formula a few years ago. I couldn't find the original source, and certainly none of the sources I found had a justification for it.
Someone who works at RAND could probably pull the original internal work and tell us. But I suspect it was chosen for ease of calculation.
While it's been criticised for being normal-esque instead of pessimistically skewed, it still outperforms single-point estimations. I think it's because of the "unpacking effect" that a full PERT estimate causes you to undergo.
There's a literature of people tinkering with the formula, but I don't think it's anywhere near as important as the unpacking effect is.