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The ensuing total ban on handguns ... mean firearm murders are extremely rare

Given that firearm murders rose after the ban (link from jjoonathan), please explain very clearly to me how can the low rate (it was low in the first place) be caused by the ban (you said the ban 'means' the low rate)?

I'm really looking forward to seeing how you can support your claim.

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A lot less mass shootings for starters, same for Australia - in fact IIRC none, in Australia since the ban.

That wasn't what was claimed by the person I replied to. He claimed at the low rate of firearms murders was a result of the ban. But firearms murders rose after the ban.

Aye I think I have lost the point of this.

The ban was put in place after mass shootings for both the UK and Australia - I believe that was primary driving factor behind it so I am not sure how that stat would or would not be effected by it and would suggest it is a bit of a red herring - and I am sure that data is interesting, if someone had the time to go through it and break it down.

All I can say is that in the UK, you don't need to worry about being shot.

So what? He/she didn't say there was a _total-and-exclusive_ correlation between the ban and the murders; other factors come into play. You got to watch on the long term here.

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