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Comment by mej10 | Hacker News Reader

Yes, it can be. And if it is a major factor in this case, then there are methods of legal recourse.

But instead he says that the judge treated him unfairly due to his race. Literally racist.

If you would look at everything he said then you would know how he meant it. He mentioned LaRaza, he mentioned previous rulings from this judge and much more. Instead you pick one quote out and call it a day.

I have read everything he has said about this, and I know what he wants us to hear.

Honest questions:

Do you think it is possible that Trump is just mad that he lost and is just trying to discredit the judge?

Do you think Trump is the kind of person that would do something like that?

Does that mean that it is "literally racist" for a non-white person to claim a white police officer, judge, etc. treated them unfairly because of their race?

Whenever there is no evidence to support their claim and they haven't taken steps to prove otherwise, yes.

There is evidence to support the claim. The judge released information that he wasn't supposed to (judge reversed the release later), and he set the first court day on the day of the GOP convention. There's a few other things too.

How is that no evidence? That is evidence to support the claim. Is it proof? Is it enough to condemn the judge? I don't know, but it is false to say that Trump came out of nowhere with this and has no evidence.

But see, the way this is supposed to work is, you tell the court about it. If that doesn't work, you tell the appeals court about it. You don't throw claims like this around in the national media (at least, normal litigants don't).

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