European law isn't precedent based.
The European Court is asked by the local courts how to interpret European laws. Otherwise why should the local court should have asked the European Court in the first place?
I don't have a better source than Wikipedia at the moment[1], but local courts will likely orient their decisions on this one.
[1] https://de.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Europ%C3%A4ischer_Gerichtsho...