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dv_dt

Ok, I initially didn't research farther than the inital article. At this point:

http://profootballtalk.nbcsports.com/2015/03/24/letroy-guion...

With a plea deal and 5k fine & court fees, "the charges were dismissed without adjudication of guilt.

There’s still a civil forfeiture case pending, so he can get his money back."

So now there is no criminal basis for the state holding onto his money...

Edit: 5k court fees -> 5k fine & court fees

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A plea deal involves an admission of guilt to something, otherwise prosecutors would have no incentive to offer it. Exactly what is another question, but I don't care enough to research the case.

For many people, even if completely innocent, a plea deal is a smarter choice than going to trial. So at the very least they are guilty of taking a plea deal. Possibly something more, but that can't be inferred.

But no guilt has been established, and not even a formal charge at this point - so we are left with a question of how can a citizen be deprived of their property by the gov't when neither of these has been established.

A guilty plea is a formal admission of guilt.

Perhaps I don't understand the meaning of this then: "the charges were dismissed without adjudication of guilt."

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