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Not about mathematics, but Heidegger subscribed to the dumb notion that philosophy could only be done in Greek and German: https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/37972/what-is...

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Kind of similar reasoning that Church services can only be done in Latin/Greek. There is a bit of merit to this from that angle in that when you go from a more expressive language to a less expressive language, you inevitably simply cannot translate or express certain concepts.

What makes a language more or less expressive? Do you have scientific evidence for your shocking claim that e.g. English is "less expressive" than Latin?

You are right, different doesn't mean more or less expressive. I was merely going on my experience being a Greek and English speaker, and a Latin student -- there are concepts that simply do not translate over to English, and I have not encountered this hurdle when translating from English to Greek.

Why do you require scientific evidence to support opinions? What's so shocking about claiming English is "less expressive" than Latin? Care to show scientific evidence that suggests that isn't the case?

Please post your scientific references using APA format in all of your comments from now on. Anything less is a disappointment to your high standards.

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