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Can you clarify? One of the states looks to be composed of mostly rural areas. And except for the state made up of mostly LA, the other state looks to have roughly equal rural vs urban representation compared to modern California. Can you clarify what you find offensive about it?

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All three states would be dominated by urban, coastal voters. It is not designed to create areas of common economic interest, it is dedigned to disenfrancise disfavored interests.

I hate to break it to you, but the population of California itself matches your description. It is impossible to divide the state into three equipopulous areas without those areas being dominated by urban centers, because the great majority of Californians live in those centers. What you seem to be advocating is that the residents of the depopulated areas be given disproportionate representation?

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