My read of the study is that it more or less proves the opposite: the wage gap is the result of women having such powerfully different preferences that it shows up even when we know discrimination is impossible.
How do women come to those "powerfully different preferences"? Do we think that all women got together and decided to only drive at less valuable times?
Or is it more likely that there are systemic/societal reasons why women as a group pick less-valuable times to drive?
Please edit such swipes out of your comments here. Besides crossing into incivility, they add no information and make divisive topics even more divisive.