I am not a doctor but this sounds strange to me. (I had amblyopia so I have read a little bit about it.)
One eye's vision needs to be significantly different from another, to the extent brain "decides" it cannot merge images and goes mono-ocular.
This trivially happens with e.g. strabismus, when eyes look at different directions. But with poor eyesight corrected with sub-optimal lenses, it would require that only one eye sees significantly blurry image while another eye sees sharp enough (otherwise person would squint or tilt glasses, adjusting for both eyes - so, no reason for amblyopia to develop).
It is not unusual that a person may have different eyesight with their left and right eye (IIRC that's called anisometropia), but I think it must be quite unusual to have glasses that fail to account for this. Even if glasses are sub-optimal, the difference should be consistent, shouldn't it?