Those are two situations that will lead to the same outcome and you don't know which happened.
Also reverse is possible. You have the same situation evolving into two different situations with double slit and interference.
Those are two situations that will lead to the same outcome and you don't know which happened.
Also reverse is possible. You have the same situation evolving into two different situations with double slit and interference.
However, this mechanism is not necessarily a law of physics: we can explain all of the same results without it. So, deciding whether or not wavefunctions "actually" collapse is 100% philosophy.
If you are going to tell me that it is according to the eigenvalues of the observable operator it's not that different from saying that there is a collapse on one of the eigenvalues of the measurement.
And the question remains for your "isolated particles in a box doing multiverse". How is the partition of the wavefunction done if there is no preferred basis?
Edit: Maybe in your interpretation the only "physical" thing is the universe described by its wave function and those infinite multiverses are just mathematical "projections" of that wavefunction. But then how can a mathematical operation without any physical substrate explain anything about the physical world?
In Multiverse, the projection-onto-eigenbases statistical rule (which guides the partition of the wavefunction into conceptual universes), is seen as being like thermodynamics: statistical, and motivated to compress vast microscopic information into variables that are nice for humans. Someone who thought MV was the right idea would say that projections were a way to calculate the fraction of universes in which something was true, and thereby your probability of ending up in one where it was. In that view, it's emergent, instead of fundamental - like temperature. This reduces the number of fundamental ideas necessary by allowing projection to emerge instead of being asserted.
I don't see the point of the analogy. In statistical mechanics we have to consider all the possible microstates because we don't know which one is real. In the multiverse approach we know what universe is real, so what is the point in keeping all the universes that "could have been but are not" around? We know they are not real! Deriving thermodynamics from statistical mechanics we get a useful theory. What does the multiverse bring us?
The wave function can be interpreted epistemologically, as the expression of our lack of knowledge of the precise state of the universe (v.g. pilot wave theory). But there is no need for parallel universes that we know are not real, if you want to have virtual parallel universes they will be just those that we could be in as far as we know (and one of them will be the true one). The wave function collapse is in that interpretation the fact of narrowing the set of potential universes compatible with the actual one, as we learn more about the universe we live in.
In a nutshell the idea of multiverse is that the entire universe evolves as an isolated system, without any wavefunction collapse.
"Branching," to the extent that branching is a good word for what happens, already is known to be a behavior of wavefunctions: as a Gaussian pulse moves, it spreads out (due to dispersion inherent to the Schrodinger equation), and we as humans can arbitrarily call that branching. (But, like I said, it's continuous instead of discrete like the word branching would imply.)
So, what remains is to explain why we find the universe in a definite state, if it time-evolves into something other than specific eigenvalues. But, first, I'll ask you: what happens if you put a manned capsule inside of the isolated particle box, so that the person inside the capsule starts dispersing too?
As for your question: I don't know. Let's say the Schroedinger equation is actually not perfectly linear and there is spontaneous collapse which happens quite rapidly for a system with N~10^30 particles. Now what?
0) quantum mechanics is great, but it can lead to quantum systems described as a superposition of states and then we need to explain why we find the universe in a definite state.
1a) one option is to say that the wave function collapses to a definite state.
1b) another option is to say that there is a multiverse... and what remains is to explain why we find the universe in a definite state.
Solution (a) may be ugly, but “solution” (b) sets you back to the starting point!
Seriously, what do you mean by "will lead to the same outcome"?