What do you mean by that? I don't see that supported by any evidence whatsoever. If a particular quintile has a smaller share of total income and yet are able to buy exactly the same products, exactly the same services, and exactly the same housing with their income then how is their purchasing power diminished?
Indeed, in actuality people are able to buy better products and services for their money. The "poor" today have cable TV, computers, and cellphones.