You have simply defined “overrepresentation” in a sexist manner (50% women).
Do you have data that suggests said pool is 50%, instead of replying to all my comments and calling me sexist?
Your concept of a “pool” is as sexist as thinking that a hospital with more than 7.6% women physicians in 1970 was a result of discrimination against men.
The advance of women in medicine is not an “over representation”. It is closing the gap on underrepresentation due to systemic sexism (with still more work to do). This is beginning to happening in CS and other high wage fields traditionally reserved as men’s work. Your argument merely seeks to bastardize and turn the very terminology of sexism against this effort.
[1] https://sites.psu.edu/civic/2017/02/14/gender-discrimination...
Then there were additional 3-4 professions with exactly 99% gender segregation. Mechanics (male), nurse secretary (female), but I don't remember the names of the other. All those professions existed where for every minority gender there where hundred or hundreds employed of the majority.
Is this proof of systemic sexism, and if so, what conclusion can we draw? Remember that in Sweden the number of employed women and men is only off by less than 1%, and only 12.5% of the population work in a profession where the majority gender is lesser than 150% to the minority. Of those 12.5%, men was that year slightly more likely to work in a gender equal profession.