1) equal pay for equal work
2) equal represenatation among (higher paying) jobs
I routinely see these two issues conflated, and occasionally the purported resolution of #1 for gender being trotted as evidence of no more "gap".
Although I can see how that could be characterized as "cherry-picking" a statistic, it doesn't make the statistic any less valid, and it detracts from the real problem of conflation. If it's true, then additional effort at #1 would, indeed, be wasted. It would be better to criticize the notion of just one "gap" rather than any cherry-picking.
How does this relate to the topic at hand? The original commentor suggested a problem of conflation, between "unemployed" and "jobless".
Elsewhere in the thread, it's been discussed whether workforce participation is a more meaningful metric.
Even that risks conflating "employed" with "fully employed" (as opposed to "underemployed", such as part time or working for a lower wage). Real wage growth comes up repeatedly, presumably because of that confounding factor.