Not at all. It turns out one of the standards was not relevant to the target population. As you quoted: "This is because in early cases of Alzheimer’s, patients may have the biological indicators of the disease without actually showing symptoms."
There's no point in trying to alleviate symptoms where there are no symptoms. If I develop a drug that removes tumors that eventually caused headaches, is it somehow lowering standards if it removes tumors before a headache appears?