I'm gonna say prejudice is actually not applied Bayesian statistics
P(broken|android) =~ P(android|broken)
We see from Bayes rule that this is false, since P(android) >> P(broken)But when my iPhone breaks, I take it into Apple for service and add it to my collection of “Apple gives great service” data points.
Saying that prejudice is just applied statistics completely mischaracterizes prejudice.