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> To insist that the "prejudice + power" argument is premised on bright-line "race == power" is to mischaracterize it to the point of being unrecognizable.

Would you mind clarifying the distinction between "differentially enfranchised groups" and "race == power" ?

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By analogy, membership in a group that is more or less enfranchised than another could be seen as a Bayesian classification, while "race == power" is more Boolean.

One describes a tendency; the other asserts an identity relationship.

It doesn't map perfectly, but it's close enough for the bandwidth I have to keep contributing to this thread right now.

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