If crimes are performed to obtain such money, then the crimes are abhorrent no doubt. However the sending and receipt of said money afterwards, in-and-of-itself should not be a crime.
I believe it is not money laundering that is causing asset bubbles in specific jurisdictions, but the enforcement of anti-money laundering measures worldwide that is causing such illicit capital to concentrate to jurisdictions where avenues to launder them is accessible.
If the proceeds of crime can be spent in the jurisdictions where the crime took place, illicit capital will not cause asset bubbles.