(A⇔B⇔C)
is not the same as ((A⇔B)∧(B⇔C))
and the former doesn't imply (A⇔C)
either, but the latter does. (A⇔B⇔C)
is not the same as ((A⇔B)∧(B⇔C))
and the former doesn't imply (A⇔C)
either, but the latter does.A⇔B⇔C is usually not a valid expression in any mathematical formalism. But if used informally, A⇔B⇔C is usually meant to mean (A⇔B)∧(B⇔C), just as when you say A=B=C when you actually mean (A=B)∧(B=C).
(A⇔B)⇔C has more in common with the other logical operators: due to it's associativity an interpretation that is, in my opinion, closer than A=B=C.
Edit, removed: Note that (A⇔B)∧(B⇔C)) is not one of the two ambiguous options: either (A⇔B)⇔C or (A∧B∧C)∨(¬A∧¬B∧¬C) this is wrong.
What do you mean by (A⇔B⇔C) then?
Because I’m pretty sure I’ve basically only seen it as shorthand for the conjunction of (A⇔B) and (B⇔C), when it is understood that ⇔ is transitive.
* edited T to F
Whatever A⇔B⇔C means, surely it shouldn't allow for that.
IFF is a parity counter like XOR.
XOR counts how many bits are true. IFF is NOT of how many bits are false. (This shows why XOR is used much more than IFF, because it is cleaner.)
(a XOR false is a, and a XOR true is NOT a, aka a+1 mod 2; a IFF true is a, and a IFF false is a+1 mod 2)
I've taught and always assume ((A⇔B)⇔C). I've apparently used (A⇔B)&(B⇔C) once.
(A⇔B⇔C)
?