Here's a great comment on r/askhistorians about this topic: https://old.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4t6htu/was_t...

In summary, the preponderance of evidence (and lack thereof) strongly indicates that the presence of these New World drugs in Egyptian mummies is the result of contamination in museum and other contexts from the last two centuries. The chemical analyses are hardly smoking guns, and the complete lack of any other evidence for such exchange across the hemispheres (or in any goods other than coca and tobacco) means that trade is a fairly preposterous explanation for the presence of these drug compounds on the mummies.