It certainly is the context, and I believe it's what OP asked. If it wasn't, it should be, because it's the only question that really matters to me as the prescriber.
If what you're saying about the different pharmacodynamics is true (and this is actually what I'm talking about. I only mentioned milder effect because that seemed to be the difference in pharmacodynamics you were getting at), then this is an important difference. It would still have to somehow be quite different to the effect of the racemic version at any arbitrary dose to be preferentially prescribed.