Almost. If this were a Supreme Court decision, I would agree with you. But it's "only" the 10th Circuit. It doesn't apply to most of the country unless the Supreme Court agrees or unless and until the other districts adopt the same reasoning when such a case comes before them.

I agree that the 12th amendment doesn't allow states to void the faithless elector's vote, but it would be constitutionally permissible for them to criminalize faithless voting, would it not?