this is not true of all functions... But it is true for very large classes of functions
Which classes of functions?
It sounds like you're saying that a function is determined by its derivatives if it's determined by its derivatives. this is not true of all functions... But it is true for very large classes of functions
Which classes of functions?
It sounds like you're saying that a function is determined by its derivatives if it's determined by its derivatives.Nearly any function you are likely to encounter in a physics class, to the best of my knowledge, is analytic (IANAP).
Another way to look at this is: “almost all” smooth functions are “nearly” polynomials. Why should trigonometric functions be “nearly” polynomials? Why should exponentials? Why should there be any connection at all between the trig functions and the polynomials? I still say this is a surprising result.
As for the other examples, here is one explanation for why they are ubiquitous in physics. Essentially, the class of analytic functions is closed under "solving differential equations".
So that's why sin/cos/exp/bessel are analytic - they are solutions to differential equations with constant/polynomial coefficients (we already know that constants and polynomials are analytic). That's why many functions found in physics are analytic - they are created from other analytic functions via a differential equation.
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/190167
P.S: Regarding your last statement "almost all smooth functions are almost polynomial", something much stronger is true: Every continuous function is almost a polynomial.
http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Extras/ComplexPrimer/Forms.as...
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler's_formula
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_algeb...