Why is "the seller would have given it to me for less" any better than "the buyer would have given me more for it"?
Why is "the seller would have given it to me for less" any better than "the buyer would have given me more for it"?
I think that pretty much articulates how people view jacked up prices, especially (but not exclusively) in situations where people are in a tough situation through no fault of there own.
Thus, the garage owner who is known for fleecing out-of-towners who have a breakdown is far more likely to get a local reputation as sort of an asshole rather than a shrewd small businessman.
It does apply in other contexts though. for example, tickets to highly sought after concerts and sporting events are probably not as expensive as they could be. (And one result is profits flow to ticket agencies.) Look how hard it was to get tickets to Hamilton for ages. (Probably still is.) The thinking is that, if you're seen as price gouging because you can, that can work for a while but isn't a great look for a long-term relationship, to say, a band.
Can you get away with it when transactions are very occasional? Sure. But things have a way of coming back to bite you.
As a thought experiment, what if we make the cab driver example be about time instead of money. Pretend it benefits cab drivers somehow to make rides take as long as possible. (I say pretend, because in most cases in the real world they would be wasting their own time as well.) So let's say you have to be somewhere at a certain time, but earlier is better. But the driver knows exactly what time you have to be there, and makes the trip take exactly that long, even though he could've gotten you there faster. You can see he's doing subpar work, doing worse for you on purpose to benefit himself.
End result would probably be like super high income tax with low rate "capital gains" loophole.