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> Courts are independent (in theory)

In the last couple years the {in practice} part has made this independence completely untrue.

> completely untrue.

That would explain why the government never loses in court ever, ever, right?

One could argue that its merely lost to another government faction. Ala intra-aristocratic strife.

Perhaps it could even be described as one part of the government applying checks and balances against another part.

Why, what changed in the last couple years?