What that comment is saying is that the two axis have different units (a unitless risk for covid case fatality and a time^-1 rate for mortality), so you can't compare them. Which is true, but if you multiply the rate by 1 year, then the units become the same and the values don't change, so that becomes comparable. I still think it makes sense to compare the risk of dying of covid-19 if you catch it vs the risk of dying of any cause in the next 12 months. 1 to 2 years worth of risk still seems like a lot to me