How does this follow?
How does this follow?
Here is the thought process, though. Typically when you get an infection, your body builds antibodies that can attack the pathogen. The next time the pathogen shows up, your body kills it before you get sick. This immunity doesn't always last for a lifetime, but there is pretty much always some immunity. With COVID-19, early reports showed that this wasn't happening; people got sick, recovered, and then got COVID-19 again. What the news article says is that the test was wrong; when they tested positive the second time, the test was just returning incorrect results (because of limitations of the PCR technique; it's testing for certain RNA, not for the existence of an infectious live virus).
So to say that this means you can be immune to SARS-CoV-2 is not strictly correct. What it says is that there is no reason to think that this virus is any different from many of the other viruses that we already know about. (We do know about viruses that you can't be immune to, like HIV. But those viruses explicitly attack the immune system machinery that is supposed to kill them. We have no evidence that SARS-CoV-2 does that.)
Are they all false? Don't know. There's hope, but not yet evidence, so far as I know.
Can you provide some sources?
My understanding was there were many different tests being used ... so on what basis are you making that generalised statement.
> When you recover from it, you don't still have it, even if you test positive. //
A plausible explanation for specific tests doesn't make this a universal truth; so presumably you are relying on more information? Also, there being an explanation for positive tests based on dead virus, doesn't mean all post-infection positive tests are due to dead virus; that's a massive assumption.
.. assuming the virus can not hide (and be able to leave) where they can't penetrate - like in the eye ?
.. and with weak immune system the outcome may be (how?)long undecided as the antibodies are not being able to fight the virus fast enough to finish it definitely?
You mean there's evidence but not proof.
Do we know for sure that Covid19 in N.Europe isn't sufficiently mutated over that in Australia, say, that secondary infection is possible (even if recovered people's antibodies recognise it somewhat)?
What I've heard from experts in the field, but I don't have sources, is that the type of RNA virus is different from influenza and doesn't mutate as quickly - which is potentially good news for those hoping for a vaccine.