The article keeps repeating the mantra that the quakes, or at least quakes in this model, add to the stress already there. That runs opposite to my (admittedly lacking) understanding of geologic forces. Wouldn't quakes indicate a reduction in stress has occurred, or would it be dependent on the "type" of the cause, i.e. a separation or a compression?
I'm not an expert but it is believed that stress can move along faults during earthquakes.