> You absolutely do not. Legal damages are measured in monetary terms, and your putative damages are the amount you paid for the good. If the company refunds that in full, you have no legal cause of action; moreover, you are likely to end up owing the company for the legal fees they incur in defending themselves.
Monetary damages are not measured in purchase cost, but replacement cost.
There are also punitive damages.
There is also jail time (if/when a prosecutor decides to charge the individuals involved).
> You can certainly do so. And the court will almost immediately toss out any case you may file against the company.
I think you're missing the important part where you are still the legal owner of the property. The judge will order them to return the property and the local prosecutor will charge them with possession of stolen goods.
> The primary remedy provided by the court system is monetary not equitable
Specific performance is a common form of remedy when damages would be hard to calculate (such as in this situation).
Moreover the monetary damages are not calculated based on the initial cost of the services (which may have been sold at a discount), but the damages at the current time (which may be substantially higher, or lower).
> Moreover, under centuries of US and British law, any contract that has an "indefinite" length is merely deemed to have a "reasonable" length. Courts have invalidated contracts that attempted to bind one or both parties for infinite terms.
You're not wrong, but "months or a few years" would not be past the "reasonable" limit in this case.