> If working from home eliminated an hour of commuting, without changing time spent on work or reducing production, the result would be equivalent to a 13% increase in productivity (assuming a 38-hour working work).

Maybe I'm just dense, but I've read this sentence 20 times, and it still doesn't make sense. If you aren't changing the time spent on work, where is the productivity gain coming from? Surely they aren't including commute time in calculating worker productivity?