How does this work when no one alive today stole any of the property? When none of the people it was stolen from are alive?

What is the (broadly consistent) legal doctrine for expropriating living people's property on the basis of their ancestors sins?

How do you draw the line around legitimate grounds for litigating a criminal grievance from the past? How do you establish the appropriate damages?

I ask these important contextualizing questions not to imply that reparation aren't possible or are necessarily a bad idea, but rather to illustrate that the attitude of "this is easy, just do the obvious thing" is not going to be sufficient here. And when the comment begins with asserted speculation about what enacting reparations "would most likely" involve... I get very suspicious.