IANAL, so I'm curious: would this count as a breach of contract with its customers?
I.e., is an ISP implicitly contracted to route packets between its customers and the entire publicly visible Internet?
I.e., is an ISP implicitly contracted to route packets between its customers and the entire publicly visible Internet?
Plenty of ISPs block certain traffic. Anything from DDOS to torrents.
My impression is that some commercial practices can be widespread, and still fail under eventual court challenge. I'm thinking of the U.S. case regarding the advertised-vs-visible diagonal sizes of CRT monitors back in the day.