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Is the assertion wrong? Cursory, recent research and my own recollection matches with the comment you were responding to.

https://www.ft.com/content/33b0a48c-ff7e-11de-8f53-00144feab...

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I think the real reason is that Greece was more or less forced by the EU to accept austerity and a bad loan it can't possibly repay. The leadup to this was irrelevant.

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