Because it is indistinguishable
UK territories (or whatever you want to call them) don't have the geopolitical baggage that larger economic unions do, so they are good intermediaries with laws that are more relevant for business in the 21st century
Of course the counter is these UK territories will be too useful for the corrupt politicians for them to want to ban.... Much like Switzerland.
If a country pisses off the EU, for example by applying sanctions to one of its member states, the EU can reply "fine, we won't trade with you". This is a credible threat because the EU has a large share of the world economy.
The UK could also threaten to not trade with a country, but this is a much smaller threat as the UK is a much smaller part of the world economy.
In geopolitics, size matters: https://pontifex.substack.com/p/why-scotland-should-leave-th...
Remember the British Commonwealth is quite large with Canada, Australia, India, South Africa, etc. These create special relationships that don't exist with the EU.
Banning all UK entities, means cutting off all of the Hong Kong relationships, many commonwealth relationships, anglo countries.
As important as the EU relationship is. The Anglo alliance of countries holds the true power and it has been this way since WWII.
I wonder which of these "too big to fail" statements will end up being the one that actually kills the global economy.
https://fair.org/home/russia-has-oligarchs-the-us-has-busine...
the scope and type of available power is what distinguishes oligarchs from mere rich businessmen. In that particular case the Kolomoisky dukedom happened to be right next to the insurgency and he, like it were the actual feudal times, had to "raise the fyrd" so to speak to protect his dukedom and the whole kingdom by extension - his forces were among the key ones who blocked the insurgency from expanding further in the first months when the Ukrainian state and army were kind of in disarray.
https://www.nationofchange.org/2016/11/01/security-firm-runn...
Imagine someone buying a new BMW M5 car on finance. Later, this guy claims that his car got stolen, gets a check from the Insurance company. Further, he uses this money as a down payment to buy a home in Texas. Do we call this "laundering"? I don't think so, since this money is traceable; neither placement, nor layering is involved. Yes, he schemed with his buddies to have his new car stolen, taken to Mexico. He can be prosecuted for his involvement in the theft, not for "money laundering".