Why do they use the terms "Palestine" when the artifacts were found in Israel? It's not like this area was called Palestine in those artifact's days and it is not called Palestine these days.
I haven't looked into it, but the convention may descend from the German, which language dominates studies of those regions—aside from English and Arabic, now, but for much of the 19th and 20th centuries it eclipsed all other Western languages as the language of Near East studies, generally. (it also comes up more than one might expect in social science concerning South America, in that time period)