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> So explicitly pay more for certain people on a race/gender basis? ...

Literally no one said this.

Please try to stay in the actual conversation–it makes for a much healthier discussion.

It's a logical extension of the rule that you have to adjust for bias in every facet of employment compensation. You just don't like where the conversation is going because it sounds like a policy most would reject, so you don't want to talk about it. The person they were responding to later agreed that any policy that doesn't fix bias is biased in itself, so what's wrong with applying this any part compensation? There's clearly a pay gap here so isn't paying certain groups more not fixing this bias?

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