Yes, and it just led to french people assuming all petty crimes were committed by people from african/arabic descent. It didn't make French society less racist. And the media almost never follow up on crime anyway, they never publish judgements. It perpetuated stereotypes even more
. And the gag order on the press has been mainly to used to cover up corruption cases related to elected officials, nothing more.
Also it's not uncommon the press publishes the legal immigration status of a suspect or even their country of origin alongside whether the suspect already has a record or not.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Amendment_to_the_United_...
This why, btw, US news has so many lies. It's nearly impossible to regulate the media unless there is a constitutional change.
For Germany - https://www.loc.gov/law/help/freedom-expression/germany.php
For the US - https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_free_speech_ex...
No it does not.
> Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.
There is absolutely no equivalent to this in the German constitution or anywhere else on the planet, the way it is phrased, applied and uphold by the US supreme court.
> No it does not.
Bold claim. How does one square it with the exceptions documented in the article linked in GP's post?