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"You are saying marital sexual assault did not have its own laws and it was NOT prosecuted under general sexual assault laws."

I am saying this because it was a fact in the United States. Laws specifically and unambiguously stated that rape was not a crime if the women was married to the man (and yes, it was gendered in the law). Hence the need for the laws to be changed starting in the late 1970's.

Some background: https://nortontooby.com/node/13251

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What part of your source are we supposed to look at?

The first result of searching for the word `wife` in the linked page:

See, e.g., Black’s Law Dictionary (6th ed.1990) (defining rape as the ‘act of sexual intercourse committed by a man with a woman not his wife and without her consent, committed when the woman’s resistance is overcome by force or fear, or under other prohibitive conditions’).”

Not sure it proves what the GP was saying, though. The second result is similar, and seems to be referencing an actual law.

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