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This does not explain anything. What if "the wealthy business owners collude against the workers while at the same time lobbying for laws that make it illegal for workers to combine" did not happen, will the low skill workers get paid $1million and the management get paid $1k instead?

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Your whole $1 million example was premised on your absurd claim that the workers have more bargaining power because there were more of them.

My comment exactly addressed that claim.

Now you seem to be asking if you eliminate bargaining power, would supply and demand dominate? I guess so? In the same sense that if you eliminate higher terms then sin(x) is just the identity function.

But why even ask the question? It's not relevant to the discussion of whether the terms you eliminated are key.

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