Serious question : I would like a person familiar with law to explain how is this not a bribe essentially? (Cos clearly it’s not treated like one. Where/what is the reasoning that invalidates my question )
Here the entity is technically abusing their people given authority to enrich itself and people it’s responsible to and letting go of the other entity responsible for wrongdoing. Charging more money for that is ok. But if you swap that entity for people or person it’s a crime?
I understand this is all interpretations but seems like a pretty dated way to bring “justice”