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> Why is the absolute 5% and the RR 32%? What's the difference?

Example:

(20/100) 20% of patients die without treatment

(10/100) 10% of patients die with treatment

absolute = 10 percentage points difference (20->10)

relative = percent decrease. 20 -> 10 50% difference

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Ah cool, that's a great explanation.

So normally people with mean age 50 and varied medical conditions that catch Covid have 16% chance of being hospitalized (based on the study placebo group). And with fluvoxamine administered early, the same people would have 11% chance of being hospitalized.

Makes sense now.

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