The same way I know that it’s incomplete when formulated in ZFC (assuming ZFC is consistent), from the first incompleteness theorem.
> Suppose ZFC is part of the universe. Then arithmetic (the model of it as being part of the universe) is complete and consistent.
Why does this conclusion follow?
Are you raising the question of whether mathematical propositions can be justified a posteriori?
Or are you arguing that the incompleteness theorems don’t necessarily apply to theories formulated ‘as part of the universe’?