Literally data coming out of Denmark and UK on their government websites says this but your provax mind will find a way to make it political
Has it occurred to anybody that there really is nothing to see there? Can it for example be that delta and omicron are circulating in slightly different populations where omicron is more prevalent among vaccinated and delta among unvaccinated?
Or there could be some disparities in populations, for example young people not getting vaccinated but getting infected by delta instead of omicron not not getting infected because of some other measures like school antigen testing?
You can investigate this information https://covidtracker.fr/vaximpact/
It is mostly omicron in France by now.