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Comment by cascom | Hacker News Reader

I wish I could recall the reference (as the below is not my original thinking), but I’ve Heard something along the following postulated:

1. Russia has a deep seated psychological worry about invasion from the west across the open plains of Eastern Europe (Poland/Ukraine) (Napoleanic wars, Ww 1, ww2) so creating a buffer is of geostrategic importance (old Soviet Warsaw Pact / satellite states. Merely having a nato member bordering Russia may stoke this anxiety (if Ukraine were to join nato)

2. The window for action is closing driven by a)population decline b) decreasing foreign reliance and wealth created from Russian energy wealth (oil/ nat gas)

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Russia has been agressor for the last 200 years. Yes, including WW2, when in 1939 it together with their Nazi ally divided Europe and took half of Poland. Only after their "ally" (out of the "fear" as well) decided to attack the narrative changed to present the regime as an innocent victim. That's typical Russian propaganda that they need to protect their borders and their minorities, which is being used to justify the raping of their neighbours. Straight from propaganda book that Hitler was using in a build up of WW2.

Not sure what people don't like in your answer, probably the truth. Bordering with Russia always includes some tragic history - occupation of the Baltic States and Romania, Winter War, occupation of Poland, occupation of the whole Eastern Europe, brutal oppression of Hungary's revolution 1959 and Czechoslovakia in 1968. Moldova 1992, Georgia 2008, and now Ukraine. At this moment Russia evolved into a completely totalitarian fascist state, while the West still plays Appeasement Policy with it, just like with Germany in 1938-39.

> Yes, including WW2, when in 1939 it together with their Nazi ally divided Europe and took half of Poland. Only after their "ally" (out of the "fear" as well)

May ask you, did you really learned about early 20th century history or Molotov-Ribbentrop act is the only thing you know about it?

To be fair Poland was first to start dividing Europe when it got piece of Czechoslovakia in 1938. Splitting Poland with Germany was done only after western powers refused all attempts by USSR to rein in Germany as wet dream in London at time was Berlin fighting Moscow and destroying communism.

> To be fair Poland was first to start dividing Europe when it got piece of Czechoslovakia in 1938.

Um, how is that fair? I mean, any “first” on ”dividing Europe” drawn during recorded history is going to be somewhat arbitrary, but pointing to the piece of Czechoslovakia that Poland annexed right after Germany annexed the Sudetenland and then forced the transfer of other Czechoslovakian territory to Hungary as making Poland the first to start dividing Europe is beyond ludicrous.

Nothing in the above negates what you said - Russia wants to expand beyond its borders, and create a buffer with Western Europe - and given population and hydrocarbon based economy, it’s now or never…

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