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No amount of open-mindedness will change that the paper is just not about vaccines but sequelae of a Covid infection.

"Sequelae" of a certain virus and "sequelae" of a vaccine related to that same virus being discussed in the paper seem pretty tightly related to me.

Why would they be tightly related? Because they both have COVID in the name? What else makes them tightly related?

They both contribute to partial immunity of the virus in question and thus it would seem very useful to compare side effects of the two.

Seems reasonable to me: