So, because of a deal worked out 80 years ago between America and USSR, the Eastern Europeans including the Ukrainian people should be blocked from determining their own destiny? All of the cited examples of "memory-holed" American provocations are well known and understood by large groups of people in the US (although not always voting majorities). I think perhaps this author is also guilty of fundamental attribution error. I don't see an answer to the question in the title other than self-reflection.