This is sheer nonsense from the jump.
No it's not. The basic point that was being quoted (from the NYT comment piece) was quite sensible actually.
The OP author then immediately falls into the semantic trap of "right to express oneself freely" == "First Amendment rights". They're not equivalent. They're overlapping and related obviously -- but nonetheless fundamentally different things.
My expectations that there might be something to this post dropped precipitously at the point, so that's where I stopped reading.