Serious question, but is it not true (statistically speaking)?
Ex source: Charles Murray's The Bell Curve, for instance.
Ex source: Charles Murray's The Bell Curve, for instance.
Not exactly. But even given the very same inconclusive evidence, you probably should assign a lower probability to a man having breast cancer than you would for woman. Simply because the priors are different.
The author implies that the test was designed with malice, when infact it may be quite appropriate.